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NCLEX-RN PDF DEMO:
QUESTION NO: 1
A violent client remains in restraints for several hours. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate while he is in restraints?
A. Give fluids if the client requests them.
B. Assess skin integrity and circulation of extremities before applying restraints and as they are removed.
C. Measure vital signs at least every 4 hours.
D. Release restraints every 2 hours for client to exercise.
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Fluids (nourishment) should be offered at regular intervals whether the client requests (or refuses) them or not. (B) Skin integrity and circulation of the extremities should be checked regularly while the client is restrained, not only before restraints are applied and after they are removed. (C) Vital signs should be checked at least every 2 hours. If the client remains agitated in restraints, vital signs should be monitored even more closely, perhaps every 1-2 hours. (D)
Restraints should be released every 2 hours for exercise, one extremity at a time, to maintain muscle tone, skin and joint integrity, and circulation.
QUESTION NO: 2
The pediatrician has diagnosed tinea capitis in an 8- year-old girl and has placed her on oral griseofulvin. The nurse should emphasize which of these instructions to the mother and/or child?
A. Administer oral griseofulvin on an empty stomach for best results.
B. Discontinue drug therapy if food tastes funny.
C. May discontinue medication when the child experiences symptomatic relief.
D. Observe for headaches, dizziness, and anorexia.
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Giving the drug with or after meals may allay gastrointestinal discomfort. Giving the drug with a fatty meal (ice cream or milk) increases absorption rate. (B) Griseofulvin may alter taste sensations and thereby decrease the appetite. Monitoring of food intake is important, and inadequate nutrient intake should be reported to the physician. (C) The child may experience symptomatic relief after 48-
96 hours of therapy. It is important to stress continuing the drug therapy to prevent relapse (usually about 6 weeks). (D) The incidence of side effects is low; however, headaches are common. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and anorexia may occur. Dizziness, although uncommon, should be reported to the physician.
QUESTION NO: 3
A client with cirrhosis of the liver becomes comatose and is started on neomycin 300 mg q6h via nasogastric tube. The rationale for this therapy is to:
A. Prevent systemic infection
B. Promote diuresis
C. Decrease ammonia formation
D. Acidify the small bowel
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) Neomycin is an antibiotic, but this is not the Rationale for administering it to a client in hepatic coma. (B) Diuretics and salt-free albumin are used to promote diuresis in clients with cirrhosis of the liver. (C) Neomycin destroys the bacteria in the intestines. It is the bacteria in the bowel that break down protein into ammonia. (D) Lactulose is administered to create an acid environment in the bowel. Ammonia leaves the blood and migrates to this acidic environment where it is trapped and excreted.
QUESTION NO: 4
A 5-year-old has just had a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. Which of these nursing measures should be included in the postoperative care?
A. Encourage the child to cough up blood if present.
B. Give warm clear liquids when fully alert.
C. Have child gargle and do toothbrushing to remove old blood.
D. Observe for evidence of bleeding.
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) The nurse should discourage the child from coughing, clearing the throat, or putting objects in his mouth. These may induce bleeding. (B) Cool, clear liquids may be given when child is fully alert.
Warm liquids may dislodge a blood clot. The nurse should avoid red- or brown-colored liquids to distinguish fresh or old blood from ingested liquid should the child vomit. (C) Gargles and vigorous toothbrushing could initiate bleeding. (D) Postoperative hemorrhage, though unusual, may occur.
The nurse should observe for bleeding by looking directly into the throat and for vomiting of bright red blood, continuous swallowing, and changes in vital signs.
QUESTION NO: 5
In acute episodes of mania, lithium is effective in 1-2 weeks, but it may take up to 4 weeks, or even a few months, to treat symptoms fully. Sometimes an antipsychotic agent is prescribed during the first few days or weeks of an acute episode to manage severe behavioral excitement and acute psychotic symptoms. In addition to the lithium, which one of the following medications might the physician prescribe?
A. Diazepam (Valium)
B. Haloperidol (Haldol)
C. Sertraline (Zoloft)
D. Alprazolam (Xanax)
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) Diazepam is an antianxiety medication and is not designed to reduce psychotic symptoms. (B)
Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication and may be used until the lithium takes effect. (C)
Sertraline is an antidepressant and is used primarily to reduce symptoms of depression. (D)
Alprazolam is an antianxiety medication and is not designed to reduce psychotic symptoms.
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Updated: May 27, 2022