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2016-FRR PDF DEMO:
QUESTION NO: 1
According to Basel II what constitutes Tier 1 capital?
A. Profits to reserves and innovative Tier 1 capital
B. Equity capital and accrued profits to reserves
C. Core capital and innovative Tier 1 capital.
D. Equity capital and core capital
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following attributes of duration gap model typically cause criticism?
I. Basis risk
II. Errors in the linear model
III. Costs of immunization
IV. Constant nature of calculation
A. I, III, IV
B. I, II
C. II, III, IV
D. I, II, III
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following statements presents an advantage of using risk and control self- assessments (RCSA) in
the operational risk framework?
I. RCSA provides very accurate scoring of risks and controls due to its subjective nature.
II. RCSA program provides insight into risks that exist in a firm, but that may or may not have occurred
before.
III. RCSA program can produce biased but transparent operational risk reporting.
IV. RCSA program allows each department to take ownership of its own risks and controls.
A. I and III
B. I, II and III
C. II, III, and IV
D. II and IV
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 4
What is the role of market risk management function within a bank?
I. Control and minimize the risks the bank should take.
II. Establish a comprehensive market risk policy framework.
III. Define, approve and monitor risk limits.
IV. Perform stress tests and other qualitative risk assessments.
A. II, III, and IV
B. I, II and III
C. I and III
D. II and IV
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 5
What is a difference between currency swaps and interest rate swaps?
A. Currency swaps generate foreign exchange rate risk in addition to interest rate risk.
B. Currency swaps do not require the exchange of notional principal on maturity.
C. Currency swaps allow banks and customers to obtain the risk/reward profile of long-term interest rates
without having to use long-term funding.
D. Currency swaps are OTC derivative contracts.
Answer: A
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Updated: May 28, 2022